I have been hearing all about the miracle on the Hudson River yesterday. I am very happy that nobody died as a result of what happened. Really, I am.
But I still have a question.
I hesitate to ask this question because it may get me in dutch. But I am still going to ask this question because I truly do not understand something. I am not trying to stir up kaka, I promise.
There have been many reports that on that plane yesterday, when the rescue boats came, it was women and children first. Afterward, men were allowed off the plane.
Why is it that women and children should be the first ones escorted off a sinking ship, or a troubled plane in this question? People just accept that this is the way it should always be, without asking any questions. It is just done that way.
Once again, why?
Do women and children have more of a right to live than mere men? What about a case where there are injured men? Do those poor bastards have to remain on the sinking whatever until all the women and children are safely disembarked?
What about husbands to these women, and fathers to these children? Do they still have to stay back, potentially disrupting the family forever if the husband dies when the whatever sinks?
What about single fathers? Do they have to let their children leave ahead of them, while the fathers cool their heels back on the sinking whatever, worried sick that their children are with strangers?
We supposedly live in an enlightened age, when women and men are on an equal footing with one another. Women have worked hard to earn the same rights and privileges that men have enjoyed over the centuries. I am delighted that this is the case, and enjoy working with women. Work would be very dull indeed in an office that didn't have any women in it. I don't know what people did in my grandparents' time. We as a society are all much better off for having women in the work place!
But getting back to my original question: If it is true that women and children have more of a right to live than men do, as the "women and children first" doctrine would seem to indicate, can someone show me some case law proving this? Was there a court case of "Smith v. Jones" or "Whoever v. Whomever" which established that women and children have a higher precedence than men do? If so, I must have missed this court case. Please fill me in.
Logical responses only, please.